Jesus cried out “eli eli lamach sabachtani”, which is aramaic….?

the church understood what it would look like to have Jesus calling out to Allah, so they changed it to hebrew even though Jesus spoke aramaic

so?

The church changed or distorted so many things that, at this point, it’s probably impossible to tell what was going on in the days of Jesus.

So, yeah, I think it’s entirely possible that the word was changed on purpose for political reasons. It fits the pattern.

If Allah is the Arabic name for God and God is the English word for God then, when you are speaking English, why don’t you use the English word God?

Ar·a·ma·ic (r-mk)

NOUN:

A Semitic language originally of the ancient Arameans but widely used by non-Aramean peoples throughout southwest Asia. Also called Aramean , Chaldean .

Ar·a·bic (r-bk)

NOUN:

A Semitic language consisting of numerous dialects that is the principal language of Arabia, Jordan, Syria, Iraq, Lebanon, Egypt, and parts of northern Africa.

Eli Eli lema sabachthani (Ηλει Ηλει λεμα σαβαχθανει)
Matthew 27:46: Around the ninth hour, Jesus shouted in a loud voice, saying “Eli Eli lema sabachthani?” which is, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”Mark 15:34: And at the ninth hour, Jesus shouted in a loud voice, “Eloi Eloi lema sabachthani?” which is translated, “My God, my God, for what have you forsaken me?”

This phrase, shouted by Jesus from the cross, is given to us in these two versions. The Matthean version of the phrase is transliterated in Greek as ηλει ηλει λεμα σαβαχθανει. The Markan version is similar, but begins ελωι ελωι (elōi rather than Ĕlei).

Jesus seems to be quoting the first line of Psalm 22. However, he is not quoting the canonical Hebrew version (êlî êlî lâmâ `azabtânî), but is using an Aramaic translation of it (see targum).

In the following verse, in both accounts, some who hear Jesus’ cry imagine that he is calling for help from Elijah (Eliyyâ). This is perhaps to underline the incomprehension of the bystanders about what is happening. Matthew’s use of ηλι may indicate a more ‘official’ rendition of the psalm verse, more in line with the Hebrew. Mark’s version probably represents the Aramaic colloquial better. The Aramaic behind Matthew is êlî êlî lmâ Å¡vaqtanî. Whereas Mark has elohî elohî.

A few ancient Greek manuscripts show signs of trying to normalise this text. For instance, the peculiar Codex Bezae renders both versions with ηλι ηλι λαμα ζαφθανι (Ĕli Ĕli lama zaphthani).

As the phrase is clearly translated into Greek in both instances there can be little doubt as to its meaning. However, a minority have speculated on different meanings, among them is George Lamsa, but his methodology has been shown to be seriously flawed.The Aramaic word Å¡vaqtanî is based on the verb Å¡vaq, ‘to leave, forget’, with the perfect tense ending -t (2nd person singular: ‘you’), and the object suffix -anî (1st person singular: ‘me’).

This phrase is treated in more depth at Last sayings of Jesus.

In Aramaic, it could be (אלהי אלהי למא ×©×‘×§×ª× ×™).

thank you for clarifying this.

and i want to add one more thing. sabachtani means “taraktani” in Arabic which means Left me. but the church translated little bit nicer and say “forsaken me”

so the real translation of that verse is

“My God, My God, why did you left me”

It is not Aramaic, it is recorded in Greek in Matthew.

eli {ay-lee’}

Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani. The Hebrew form, as Elio, Elio, etc., is the Syro-Chaldaic (the common language in use by the Jews in the time of Christ) of the first words of the twenty second Psalm; they mean “My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?”

lama was however transliterated from Aramaic meaning Why: as was sabachthani thou hast forsaken me

The Bible speaks and stands for itself. We do not need to change it to fit our needs nor do we need to change it to defend who GOD is.

One thing we need to remember, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani was the most tragic statement ever made in all of history when GOD the Father had to fosake HIS own SON in order to pay a debt Jesus did not own because we owed a debt we could not pay. If we place our trust in Jesus, we wil never have to say those words.

What difference does it make? Everyone knows that Jesus spoke Aramaic, but it would not have been unusual for Him to have spoken Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek.

The ancient Greek manuscripts use Eli. And, several of these manuscripts precede the rise of the Muslim religion, so why are you trying to make hay out of a problem that did not exist? There was no anti-muslim sentiments prior to the beginnings of the Muslim religion. THINK ABOUT IT!